Consider this statement about a function $f(x)$:

(*) If $(f(x){)}^2\le 1$ for all $-1\le x\le 1$ then ${\int }_{-1}^1(f(x){)}^{2}dx\le {\int }_{-1}^{1}f(x)dx$

Which one of the following functions provides a counterexample to (*)?